If the statement was only given as a reason why cheating is prevalent nowadays it would be an explanation.
To take the next step and use that explanation to rationalize one's own cheating makes it is a justification (or rationalization, whichever you prefer).
GP certainly used it as his justification.
Because, I agree: if there wasn't such a societal emphasis on material goods (ie the Benz), there would be less embezzlement.
Noting that that relationship might exist is entirely different from saying "this relationship exists therefore I shall embezzle."
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It isn't a justification; it's an explanation.
Because, I agree: if there wasn't such a societal emphasis on material goods (ie the Benz), there would be less embezzlement.
If the statement was only given as a reason why cheating is prevalent nowadays it would be an explanation.
To take the next step and use that explanation to rationalize one's own cheating makes it is a justification (or rationalization, whichever you prefer).
GP certainly used it as his justification.
Noting that that relationship might exist is entirely different from saying "this relationship exists therefore I shall embezzle."
What if it's the other way around: Individual emphasis on material goods the whole society to appear as such?