As long as I know, it refers to the total monetary volume of fiscal fraud. It would be a "80/20" rule case but this is not the point.
The point is that this government rules with a twisted logic. They assume the biggest fraction of population originates the biggest fraction of fraud. For them, everything is low and middle classes' fault.
Comments
As long as I know, it refers to the total monetary volume of fiscal fraud. It would be a "80/20" rule case but this is not the point.
The point is that this government rules with a twisted logic. They assume the biggest fraction of population originates the biggest fraction of fraud. For them, everything is low and middle classes' fault.
I recently read this and it seems to me that fraud is quite popular regardless of the social status http://www.businessweek.com/articles/2014-01-30/spains-growt...