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having limited formal reasoning skills is a defining feature of being female

Where does she say this, even implicitly? Questioning the axioms of logical theories is just as much practiced by men, and has a large historical precedent.

If questioning the axioms of logical theories is practiced by men, does that mean that those men are necessarily 'feminist'? Does the fact (or not) that para-consistent logics were first discovered and studied by men exclude them from being a candidate for 'feminist' logic? Would you answer differently depending on the politics of the mathematicians? Can you understand why this seems ridiculous?

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