A ban, no, but if ubereats is required to purchase foods for example, that is an infringement. You don't have to use ubereats to buy food.

Let me spin it a bit, if a new tech comes along and that results in not being able to use delivery apps like ubereats to get food, that new tech should be considered an infringement of rights.

"New means by which individuals purchase food may not inhibit or otherwise reduce their ability existing means of purchasing food" that's how I'd word it. An uber eats ban is not a new mean of buying food but uber eats itself is. If doordash collaborates with payment card processors for an exclusive payment processing for delivery apps, that would be an infringement for example, because that's new tech/means reducing existing means.