If their mistake did cause harm to your business, they should pay for it. Having more or less money than the other part should have zero correlation with the result of a justice judgement, because having more or less money do not change the facts that have happened and should be judged.
At least that's how we conceive justice in France (eg "dommages et intérêts"), but after reading the US-DE comparison [1] I understand I am probably wrong.
Comments
> How could I prove they did that on purpose?
You shouldn't need to.
If their mistake did cause harm to your business, they should pay for it. Having more or less money than the other part should have zero correlation with the result of a justice judgement, because having more or less money do not change the facts that have happened and should be judged.
At least that's how we conceive justice in France (eg "dommages et intérêts"), but after reading the US-DE comparison [1] I understand I am probably wrong.
- [1] http://math-www.uni-paderborn.de/~axel/us-d.html