But only, if the DOM is used in other ways than being an output of whatever is done to calculate its update. If the framework uses the DOM for other things than directly updating it or respresentation of internal state, then that's on the framework. Is it reasonable to assume DOM itself is part of the state? Would it not be more reasonable to have an internal state? But we have this with virtual DOM. So maybe the issue is in the way it makes use of the DOM in conjuction with virtual DOM internally. Maybe it is an optimization "hack" that goes badly in this scenario.
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But only, if the DOM is used in other ways than being an output of whatever is done to calculate its update. If the framework uses the DOM for other things than directly updating it or respresentation of internal state, then that's on the framework. Is it reasonable to assume DOM itself is part of the state? Would it not be more reasonable to have an internal state? But we have this with virtual DOM. So maybe the issue is in the way it makes use of the DOM in conjuction with virtual DOM internally. Maybe it is an optimization "hack" that goes badly in this scenario.
That sounds pretty arbitrary. Upon what grounds do you feel it's appropriate to say that the DOM is only allowed to be used in the way you describe?