He left Spain in August, the same week that Jews were kicked out. This explains why he left Spain

Extremely absurd statement that makes absolutely no sense at all. Surely his investors expected him to return?

If his (possible) Jewish origin would have been know surely that would have came out during one of the lawsuits between the Crown and his descendants: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pleitos_colombinos

but it’s now clear this was due most likely due to forced conversion.

Or that his grandparents or even grand-grandparents were converts?