Comment on Banach–Tarski ParadoxparentComments−constantcrying2yCan someone explain this more simply?It comes down to the fact that not every set can be reasonably assigned a volume. Once you restrict yourself to sets where volume is meaningfully defined, the paradox immediately disappears and your reasoning becomes completely valid.
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It comes down to the fact that not every set can be reasonably assigned a volume. Once you restrict yourself to sets where volume is meaningfully defined, the paradox immediately disappears and your reasoning becomes completely valid.