What I would like to understand is the logic that says in some cases we see a physical noise being created by the ear, yet we conclude this is a tiny minority of cases, with all the rest being some issue with neural processing. As opposed to thinking we just don’t have a sensitive enough measurement in those other cases. I can’t find this logic in a casual search. References anyone?
I've had tinnitus for many decades, when I first went to a doctor for it around 30 years ago he told me that in some cases it was an actual sound that other people could hear. He checked and he couldn't hear mine. Although I did consider the possibility that he was just putting me on.
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From some quick reading I don't think this is a new discovery, there is even a name for it "objective tinnitus". Here's a case study: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4922963/
What I would like to understand is the logic that says in some cases we see a physical noise being created by the ear, yet we conclude this is a tiny minority of cases, with all the rest being some issue with neural processing. As opposed to thinking we just don’t have a sensitive enough measurement in those other cases. I can’t find this logic in a casual search. References anyone?
I've had tinnitus for many decades, when I first went to a doctor for it around 30 years ago he told me that in some cases it was an actual sound that other people could hear. He checked and he couldn't hear mine. Although I did consider the possibility that he was just putting me on.
And more generally: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Otoacoustic_emission