I dispute the idea that marriage stability in and of itself is a metric we should seek to maximize. Some marriages should end in divorce.

All that you're really doing is showing that one form of social conservatism is correlated to another form of social conservatism. That doesn't actually illustrate anything.

Also, it's not even a correlation between orthogonal variables. Presumably, if you're already in a stable marriage for a longer period of time, there was less time for you to have premarital sex in the first place.