There's a little too much amateurish analysis here which doesn't even attempt to distinguish between Early Modern English and 21st century English, but ultimately I think the conclusion is interesting and probably correct, that this helps set the tone of the play.
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There's a little too much amateurish analysis here which doesn't even attempt to distinguish between Early Modern English and 21st century English, but ultimately I think the conclusion is interesting and probably correct, that this helps set the tone of the play.
Didn't Shakespeare kind of use his own version of English; even by the standards of the day?