(I'm not a lawyer, nor am I member of that group.)
Essentially, the referendum was advisory, an interpretation confirmed by the Miller case. The act passed in response to that case does not include a clear decision to leave the EU. Thus, the Article 50 notification made in 2017 was not in compliance the UK constitutional requirements.
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Can someone summarize what are their arguments?
(I'm not a lawyer, nor am I member of that group.)
Essentially, the referendum was advisory, an interpretation confirmed by the Miller case. The act passed in response to that case does not include a clear decision to leave the EU. Thus, the Article 50 notification made in 2017 was not in compliance the UK constitutional requirements.